TheBeast101
TheBeast101 TheBeast101
  • 04-03-2015
  • Mathematics
contestada

Is 16% of 40the same as 40% of 16

Respuesta :

Аноним Аноним
  • 04-03-2015
yes! 

40% of 16 = 6.4

16% of 40 = 6.4

Answer Link
EamonnAdams1992 EamonnAdams1992
  • 23-08-2019

Answer:

Yes

Step-by-step explanation:

We have to change 16% to a fraction:

[tex]=16/100=4/25[/tex]

We can multiply 4/25 by 40:

[tex]=(4/25)\cdot{40}=160/25=32/5[/tex]

We can do the same for 40% of 16:

[tex]=40/100=2/5[/tex]

We can multiply 2/5 by 16:

[tex]=(2/5)\cdot{16}=32/5[/tex]

Therefore 16% of 40 is equal to 40% of 16

Answer Link

Otras preguntas

If  lies in the quadrant IV. What can be the value of cos  ?
is -n always sometime or never a positive number ?explain
Two pounds of peaches at the farmers market cost $4.20.How much will 5 pounds cost?
What is 3,200,000,000,000 in scientific notation
what is the least 10 digit whole number
A bus on a regular schedule takes 3 1/4 hours to reach its destination. The express bus takes 2 1/2 hours to make the same trip. How much travel time can be sa
What is Circular Motion?
why is the use of the inquiry process a practical way to approach science HELP
what is the complete subject in the following sentence? the young boy rode the bus to school.
What is 70,030,000 in scientific notation